My husband and I married in January. I’m 22, he is 25. I had my first credit card at 18, my husband at 22… so we’ve got some credit history. My husband makes about $ 37,000 a year before taxes and I’m a student. We are living in a house right now that we own (no liens or anything) that was given to us, and it’s worth about $ 100,000. We wanted to buy our own home and rent the house we are currently living in. We each paid $ 15 for our credit reports online… his are – 636, 665, and 640… mine are – 616, 636, 627. Then we applied for a mortgage loan at a local “financial services” place (not a bank) for an $ 80,000 home loan and was declined.
The “underwriter” told me it was because my husband’s credit score was only a 602. I told him that was wrong because we had just looked at our scores and reports. He told me they look at a different kind of report than what we get from a “personal enquiry”. Is this true? AND– he told me that I had no credit at all appear for my social security number. Well, I’ve had three credit cards (one of them I just used today), an auto loan, and all of our bills are in my name. I know I have credit! Is it just me, or is something not right here?!
we got our reports from equifax.com and we paid to get the equifax, experian, and transunion scores, all three